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Post by Admin on Wed Jan 09, 2008 8:14 am

Jesus said that we were to become "like little children" in order to understand Truth. Surely then He would use simple terms with straightforward meanings, i.e. if He called God His Father, how could He have meant Himself? You know there is a difference between Elohim (God - 'the Spirit'), and Yahweh (the human incarnation representing {and united with} God = Elohim).

This is why there are two terms (Elohim/God & Yahweh/Lord) used in the Hebrew Scriptures. Yahweh (a living human incarnation - a Messiah, Christ, or Lord) has always existed on Earth. Just read the OT. This is also spoken of in most other scriptures of the world (e.g. as an Avatar, Buddha, Mahdi, Christ, etc.)

AND He not only existed then, but exists NOW, and until the very end - living on Earth as a Spiritual Master (for those who have eyes to see, and ears to hear). Shocked

Seek and you will find! cheers

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Post by Apakhana on Mon Feb 11, 2008 3:17 pm

Good post, I think it is open to infite different interpretation.

One must also accept it's not a good idea to write "Yahweh" since this isn't the correct spelling/pronounciation of the tetragram YHWH.

As V.M. Thoth-Moisés has pointed out, there are all sorts of deceptions and injustices perpetuated incorrectly using that name and there exists a terrible demon of the Black Lodge called "Yahve" that is easily confused with YHWH according to him.

I know the Kabbalists have made it a law to use YHWH as proper to avoid confusion which obscures truth.
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